RUHS MSc Nursing Entrance Questions- 2014

Here is MSc Nursing Entrance Exam Question Paper RUHS (Rajasthan  University of Health sciences) of the year 2014 for free. Aspiring candidates can make use of it.

1. The patient with CHF is placed in a high Fowler's position .What is the rationale for placing the patient in this position?
A. To increase the volume of blood returning to heart
B. To increase cardiac output and stroke volume
C. To reduce the volume of blood returning to heart
D. To reduce ankle edema and prevent dysrhythmias
Right Answer: C

2. A patient with hemorrhoids asks the nurse the cause of the problem. The nurse explains that it generally results from
A. Eating spicy foods
B. Diabetes
C. Hypertension
D. Constipation
Right Answer: D

3. The patient who is immobilized because of spinal cord injuries, should have a diet rich in
Right Answer: D

4. During the first 24 hours of treating a patient for burns, you can assist in assessing fluid replacement needs by monitoring hourly
A. Urine specific gravity
B. I/V fluid rate
C. Vital signs
D. I/V fluid intake
Right Answer: A

5. The physician considers performing a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) tests on the elderly client with cirrhosis. Before the MRI is performed, which nursing action is essential?
A. The nurse administers a pretest sedative
B. The nurse records the client's body weight
C. The nurse removes the client's dental bridge
D. The nurse inserts a Foley retention catheter
Right Answer: C

6. A client is receiving radiation to the neck for cancer of the larynx. The most likely side effects to be expected is :
A. Sore throat
B. Constipation
C. Diarrhoea
D. Dyspnoea
Right Answer: A

7. Which nursing intervention is appropriate for a client with skeletal traction?
A. Prone positioning
B. Intermittent weights
C. Pin care
D. 5 pound weight
Right Answer: C

8. The test that is most specific for myocardial damage is
B. Myoglobin
C. Troponin I
Right Answer: C

9. What would you monitor in a patient taking high doses of Acetaminophen over a prolonged period?
A. GI irritation
B. Kidney function
C. Liver function
D. Prothrombin time
Right Answer: c

10. A patient is admitted with a suspected bladder cancer .A nurse assesses the patient for which of the following earliest manifestation of the disease?
A. Protienuria and dysuria
B. Haematuria and no pain
C. Painful urinations and haematuria
D. Pyuria and palpable abdominal mass
Right Answer: B

11. A patient has been admitted in the hospital with gastroenteritis. During assessment, the nurse is expected to find:
A. Hypoactive bowel sounds
B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
C. Rigid and broad like abdomen
D. Rebound tenderness
Right Answer: B

12. The nurse while taking care of a patient with cervical level spinal cord injury should give priority to the following nursing diagnosis
A. Risk for hypertension
B. Ineffective airway clearance
C. Ineffective thermoregulation
D. Impaired physical mobility
Right Answer: B

13. A client with cancer develops pleural effusion. During chest auscultation, the following breath sounds should be expected to hear
A. Cackles
B. Rhonchi
C. Diminished breath sounds
D. Wheeze
Right Answer: C

14. A 35 - year old male has been an Insulin dependent diabetic for last 5 years and is now unable to urinate. The following is most likely to suspect
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Diabetic nephropathy
C. Autonomic neuropathy
D. Somatic neuropathy
Right Answer: C

15. The following problem does not typically result from uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus
A. Maternal hyperglycemia
B. Fetal demise
C. Insufficient amniotic fluid
D. Maternal hypertension
Right Answer: D

16. When disposing plastic bags, tubings, syringes and gloves used to administer antineoplastic drugs, the nurse should implement which nursing intervention?
A. Avoiding contact with the equipment by allowing housekeeping to remove it
B. Discarding all used equipment in a container marked "Isolation"
C. Dispose all equipment in a container marked " Bio health Hazard"
D. Disposing all used equipment in the regular trash receptacles
Right Answer: C

17. The client with a recto vaginal fistula is at risk of Infection. The intervention, most important in preventive aspect of nursing care is
A. Administering antibiotics
B. Ensuring adequate rest to enhance healing
C. Monitoring temperature and WBC count
D. Performing perineal care
Right Answer: D

18. A client is presented with embolic stroke. Which of the following condition places the client at the risk of thrombo embolic stroke?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Bradycardia
C. Superficial vein thrombosis
D. History of myocardial infarction
Right Answer: A

19. The following is the most frequent classic site of internal bleeding associated with hemophilia
A. Brain tissue
B. GI tract
C. Joint cavities
D. Spinal cord
Right Answer: C

20. The nurse should anticipate which immediate treatment for a patient experiencing pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
A. Transcutaneous pacing
B. Electrical counter shock
C. Transvenous pacing
D. Intravenous bolus of Lidocaine 100mg
Right Answer: B

21. Which of the following can cause hypovolaemic shock?
A. Allergic reaction of medication
B. Third- space shifting of fluid into the abdominal cavity
C. Sepsis
D. Profound bradycardia
Right Answer: B

22. What measurement can best be used to monitor the respiratory status of a patient with pulmonary oedema?
A. Arterial blood gas analysis
B. Pulse oximetry
C. Skin color assessment
D. Lung sounds
Right Answer: A

23. Which body system most commonly is affected in patients with electrolyte imbalances?
A. Cardiovascular system
B. Neuromuscular system
C. Renal system
D. Endocrine system
Right Answer: B

24. A patient with colonic obstruction should be observed for which potential complication?
C.Bowel Necrosis
Right Answer: C

25. The bile is produced through?
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Pancreas
D. Receptor
Right Answer: A

26. The drug most widely tried against AIDS virus is?
Zidovudine (azido thymidine)
Right Answer: A

27. Which microorganism causes Hepatitis B?
A. Virus
B. Protozoa
C. Bacteria
D. fungi
Right Answer: A

28. Insects that can transmit diseases to human are referred to as?
A. Carriers
B. Reservoirs
C. vectors
D. Incubators
Right Answer: C

29. The disease Filaria is caused by?
A. Ascarris
B. Wuchereria bancrofti
C. Peasmodium
D. Tinea soleum
Right Answer: B

30. An individual whose blood type is B may in emergency donate blood to a person whose blood type is?
A. B or A
B. AB or A
C. A or O
D.AB or B
Right Answer: D


31. Which one of the following organs breaks fat to produce cholesterol?
A. Intestine
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Kidneys
Right Answer: B

32. The disease Athelete's Foot is caused by?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Nimatod
Right Answer: B

33. White blood cells act
A. As a defense against infection
B. As source of energy
C. For clotting blood
D. As a medium for oxygen transport from lungs to tissues
Right Answer: A

34. Which of the following is secreted through lachrymal gland?
A. Sebum
B. Mucous
C. Tears
D. Sweat
Right Answer: C

35. Development of Goitre (Enlarged thyroid gland) is mainly due to deficiency of?
A. Sodium
B. Iodine
C. Calcium
D. Iron
Right Answer: B

36. The thickest human skin is?
A. Palm
B. Sole
C. Neck
D. Head
Right Answer: B

37. Which of the following is an example of tissue?
A. Brain
B. Blood
C. Liver
D. Stomach
Right Answer: B

38. Through which of the following organs maximum nutritional elements in the blood are absorbed?
A. Mouth
B. Large intestine
C. Small intestine
D. Abdomen
Right Answer: C

39. Which one of the following enzymes is found in the Saliva?
A. Renin
B. Ptyalin
C. Tenin
D. Resin
Right Answer: B

40. The total number of bones found in human body are?
A. 212
B. 206
C. 202
D. 102
Right Answer: B

41. The longest bone of the human body is
A. Stepis
B. Fibula
C. Tibia
D. Femur
Right Answer: D

42. In which of the following structure the human body vermiform appendix is included?
A. Large Intestine
B. Small Intestine
C. Gall bladder
D. Stomach
Right Answer: A

43. Which of the following medication is useful for reducing raised intracranial pressure?
A. I V mannitol
B. I V phenytoin
C. I V diazepam
D. I V nitroglycerine
Right Answer: A

44. Warm, dry, pink skin is seen in?
A. Hypovolemic shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Anaphylactic shock
D. Neurogenic shock
Right Answer: D

45. The medicine given during acute anaphylactic reaction is
A. Atropine
B. Aminophyline
C. Deriphylline
D. Adrenaline
Right Answer: D

46. During hemodialysis, which of the following drug is used to prevent blood clotting?
A. Aspirin
B. Warfarin
C. Heparin
D. Protamine
Right Answer: C

47. In following which is a side effect of streptomycin
8th cranial nerve
Damage to growing cartilage
Bone marrow depression
Right Answer: A

48. Which of the following need serum level monitoring?
A. Lorazepam
B. Lithium
C. Amitryptylline
D. Haloperidol
Right Answer: B

49. Calcium channel blocking agents of use in the treatment of hypertension include
A. Prazosin
B. Lidoflazin
C. Captropril
D. Nifedipine
Right Answer: D

50. Which sign or symptom you will find in an infant with pyloric stenosis?
A. Vomiting of bile
B. Lethargy
C. Diarrhea
D. Projectile vomiting
Right Answer: D

51. Which precaution is used during phototherapy?
A. Leave the infant's clothes on
B. Check the infant's temperature once a day
C. Reposition the infant's infrequently
D. Cover the infant's eye
Right Answer: D

52. A couple has a 2 years old child with cystic fibrosis. When planning their next pregnancy, the couple should undergo
A. Genetic counseling
B. Psychological counseling
C. Counseling regarding transmission of sexually transmitted diseases
D. TORCH test
Right Answer: A

53. Head control is possible in an infant at
A. 1 month
B. 3 month
C. 5 month
D. 6 month
Right Answer: B

54. Low birth weight baby is defined as
A. Birth weight less than 1500 gms
B. Birth weight less than 2000 gms
C. Birth weight less than 2500 gms
D. Birth weight less than 1000 gms
Right Answer: C

55. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess "crowning"?
A. First stage
B. Second stage
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
Right Answer: B

56. Before birth, which of the following structures connect the right and left auricles of the heart?
A. Umbilical vein
B. Foramen ovale
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Ductus venosus
Right Answer: B

57. Which of the following when present in urine may cause a reddish stain on the diaper of a newborn?
A. Mucus
B. Uric acid crystals
C. Bilirubin
D. Excess Iron
Right Answer: B

58. Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy?
A. 6-10 wks
B. 11-15 wks
C. 16-18 wks
D. 9-11 wks
Right Answer: B

59. Which of the following hormones would be administered for the stimulation of uterine contractions?
A. Estrogen
B. Fetal cortisol
C. Oxytocin
D. Progesterone
Right Answer: C

60. Endometrium in pregnancy is known as
A. Decidua
B. Decubitus
C. Trophoblast
D. Gravid endometrium
Right Answer: A

61. Hypertrophic sebaceous glands around nipples during pregnancy
A. Montgomery's tubercle
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Chloasma
D. Linea nigra
Right Answer: A

62. Average total gain during pregnancy is
A. 8-10 kg
B. 10-12 kg
C. 12-14 kg
D. 16-18 kg
Right Answer: B

63. Fertilization takes place in fallopian tube in the
A. Infundibulum
B. Isthmus
C. Ampulla
D. Fumbriae
Right Answer: C

64. Umbilical cord contains
A. Two arteries and two veins
B. Two arteries and one vein
C. Two veins and one artery
D. One artery and one vein
Right Answer: B

65. Engaging diameter of vertex presentation is

Suboccipito frontal
B. Suboccipito bregmatic
C.Submento bregmatic
D. Mento vertical
Right Answer: B

66. Bluish discoloration of cervix during pregnancy is
A. Jacquemier's sign
B. Hegar's sign
C. Chadwick's sign
D. Godell's sign
Right Answer: C

67. Physiologic anemia during pregnancy is a result of
A. Increased blood volume of the mother
B. Decreased dietary intake of Iron
C. Decreased erythropoietin after first trimester
D. Increased detoxification of iron by the maternal lever
Right Answer: A

68. Sign and symptoms of placenta Previa include
A. Sharp abdominal pain
B. Early rupture of membranes
C. Increased low back pain
D. Painless vaginal bleeding
Right Answer: D

69. During Induction of labor, a woman should be observed carefully for signs of
A. Uterine tetany
B. Severe pain
C. Prolapse of the umbilical cord
D. Hypoglycemia
Right Answer: A

70. Community health center
A. Has 100 beds
B. Covers a population of approx. 1 Lakh
C. Has X-rays and laboratory facilities
D. Acts as a referral hospital for the community block
Right Answer: B

71. Often the baby, who is given only milk during infancy, develops iron deficiency anemia because
A. The number of red blood cells is destroyed during infancy
B. Milk interferes with the absorption of iron
C. Milk is a poor source of iron
D. It impairs or decreases rate of production of Red Blood Cells
Right Answer: C

72. Priya, a 5year old girl is suffering from acute respiratory infection. She could be given
A. Plenty of fluids and food
B. Restricted food and fluids
C. Milk only
D. Only intravenous fluids
Right Answer: A

73. The extra energy allowances needed per day during pregnancy is
150 K calories
200 K calories
300 K calories
550 K calories
Right Answer: C

74. In comparison to cow's milk, which one of the following is more in human milk
A. Lactose
B. Proteins
C. Minerals
D. Iron
Right Answer: A

75. Best test to detect iron deficiency in community is
A. Transferrin
B. Serum Ferritin
C. Serum Iron
D. Hemoglobin
Right Answer: B

76. The Vitamin A supplements administered in 'Prevention of nutritional blindness in children programme" contain
A. 25000 I.U/ml
B. 1 lakh I.U/ml
C. 3 lakh I.U/ml
D. 5 lakh I.U/ml
Right Answer: B

77. All the following are a good source of omega 3 PUFA except
A. Mustard Oil
B. Groundnut Oil
C. Corn Oil
D. Fish Oil
Right Answer: A

78. All are water borne diseases except
A. Leptospirosis
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Fish Tape worm
D. Brucellosis
Right Answer: D

79. Vector of Kala azar is
A. Flea
B. Tsetse fly
C. Sand fly
D. Mosquito
Right Answer: C

80. The time interval between the invasion by an infectious agent and just appearance of the just signs and symptoms of the disease
A. Latent period
B. Quarantine
C. Incubation period
D. Termination period
Right Answer: C

81. All are gross root level workers except

A. Anganwadi workers
B. Traditional birth attendant
C. Village health guide
D. Health assistants
Right Answer: D

82. Which of the following person is present in subcenter?
A. Multi purpose health worker
B. Laboratory technician
C. Health educator
D. Medical officer
Right Answer: A

83. Case finding in RNTCP is based on
A. Sputum culture
B. Sputum microscopy
C. X-ray chest
D. Mantoux test/PCR
Right Answer: B

84. ASHA (Accredited social health activist ) work at
A. Community level
B. Village level
C. PHC Level
D. District Level
Right Answer: B

85. 'Five clean practices' under strategies for elimination of neonatal tetanus includes all except
A. Clean surface of delivery
B. Clean hand of attendant
C. New blade for cutting the cord
D. Clean airway
Right Answer: D

86.Diluent used for BCG is

A. Distilled water
B. Normal Saline
C. Dextrose Solution
D. Ringer lactate
Right Answer: B

87. Commonest complication of mumps is
A. Orchitis and oopherirtis
B. Encephalitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Myocarditis
Right Answer: A

88. Which committee is known as health survey and development committee?
A. Bhore Committee
B. Mudalier Committee
C. Shrivastav Committee
D. Mukharji Committee
Right Answer: A

89. Pertusis is known as
A. Enteric fever
B. Whooping cough
C. German measles
D. Rubella
Right Answer: B

90. The most common cause of maternal mortality in India is
A. Obstetric hemorrhage
B. Anemia
C. Abortion/ Septicemia
D. Obstructed labour
Right Answer: A

91. Play for the preschool age child is necessary for the emotional development of
A. Projection
B. Competition
C. Introjection
D. Independence
Right Answer: C

92. The stage of growth and development basically concerned with role identification is the
A. Oral stage
B. Oedipal stage
C. Latency stage
D. Genital stage
Right Answer: B

93. A person, seeing a design on the wallpaper perceives it as an animal. This is an example of
A. Delusion
B. Hallucination
C. Illusion
D. Idea of reference
Right Answer: C

94. A client expresses the belief that the C.B.I is out to kill him. This is an example of
A. A hallucination
B. A self-accusatory delusion
C. A delusion of persecution
D. An error in judgement
Right Answer: C

95. Mr. James is withdrawn and non-communicative; to encourage him to talk, the best plan of nursing intervention would be to:

A. Ask simple questions that require answers
B. Focus on non-threatening subjects
C. Try to get him to discuss his feelings
D. Sit and look through magazines with him
Right Answer: B


96. The most accurate definition of 'depression', as used in psychiatry, is
A. A disturbance in mood as a reaction to the loss of a love object
B. A total loss of control over emotional impulses
C. An inability to make decisions or function
D. A disturbance in mood as a result of frustration of instinctual strivings.
Right Answer: A

97. The affect most commonly found in client with schizophrenia is one of
A. Happiness and elation
B. Apathy and flatness
C. Sadness and depression
D. Anger and hostility
Right Answer: B

98. Major side effect of haloperidol
A. Drowsiness
B. Dry mouth
C. Extrapyramidal reactions
D. Anorexia
Right Answer: C

99. Intelligent quotient (IQ) in mild mental retardation

A. <50
B. 50-70
C. 70-80
D. 80-90
Right Answer: B

100. Imaginary perceptions are called
A. Delusions
B. Hallucinations
C. Illusions
D. Magical thinking
Right Answer: B

101. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be used to treat

A .Dysthymic disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Cyclothymic disorder
D. Bipolar I disorder
Right Answer: B

102. The personality disorder that is characterized primarily by mistrust is
Paranoid personality disorder
Antisocial personality disorder
Dependent personality disorder
Schizotypal personality disorder
Right Answer: A

103. The most serious complication of anorexia nervosa
A. High risk of mortality
B. Coexisting depression
C. Poor family relationships
D. Social isolation
Right Answer: A

104. The test for assessing patient's orientation and recall
A. Beck depression inventory
B. Thematic appreciation test
C. Mini-mental status examination
D. Millon clinical multiaxial inventory
Right Answer: C

105. The major reason for conducting nursing research is to

A. Promote the growth of nursing profession
B. Improve nursing care for clients
C. Ensure accountability for nursing practice
D. Document the cost effectiveness of nursing care
Right Answer: B

106. Facts generally accepted as true or correct are known as
A. Assumptions
B. Limitations
C. Delimitations
D. Statistics
Right Answer: A

107. While counseling an individual an impotent principle to follow is
A. Cooperation with patient
B. Continuity of interaction
C. Individual differences
D. Joint responsibility
Right Answer: C

108. Reliability of an instrument means that it
A. Measure what it needs to measure
B. Measures consistently
C. Is feasible and applicable
D. Is standardized
Right Answer: B

109. Which method is the placement of a series of variables in ascending or descending order?
A. Ranking
B. Rating
C. Q sort
D. Likert scale
Right Answer: A

110. The first step in constructing a test is to
A. Select a variety of items from which to choose
B. Define the objective of the course
C. Delimit the content to be covered by the test
D. Draw up a table of specifications-Blue print
Right Answer: B

111. Best method of variability is
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Range
D. Standard Deviation
Right Answer: D

112. A hypothesis which a researcher tries to disprove is
A. Positive hypothesis
B. Research hypothesis
C. Null hypothesis
D. Alternate hypothesis
Right Answer: C

113. The 2- way process of exchange of information between individuals through a common system can be termed as
A. Interaction
B. Interpersonal relationship
C. Communication
D. Sharing
Right Answer: C

114. Which type of channel is considered as the best one for effective communication?
A. Combined
B. Visual
C. Auditory
D. Tactile
Right Answer: A

115. Line of authority is followed under
A. Symbolic communication
B. Informal communication
C. Formal communication
D. Therapeutic communication
Right Answer: C

116. Who gave the theory of interpersonal relations?
A. Dorothy Orem
B. Martha Rogers
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Hildegard Peplau
Right Answer: D

117. An important aspect of nurse-patient relationship is
A. Therapeutic
B. Personal
C. Social
D. Casual
Right Answer: A

118. Following are the strategies to promote effective human relations, except
A. Individualized goals
B. Common organizational goals
C. Group cohesiveness
D. Sense of oneness
Right Answer: A

119. Self understanding is facilitated by the study of
A. Newman's window
B. Kothari window
C. Johari window
D. Bohari window
Right Answer: C

120. A ward in charge starts establishing ' Best Nurse' award on a monthly basis. She is appreciating the phenomenon of
A. Motivation
B. Persuasion
C. Communication
D. Information
Right Answer: A